Week 6: Factors Affecting Exchange Rates & Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) Theory

📚 Unit 2 of 4 • Topic 2.2 🕒 4 Contact Hours (3 Lectures + 1 Tutorial) 🎯 CO2: Analyse exchange rate movements using theories such as Purchasing Power Parity

Learning Objectives

By the end of this session, students will be able to:

1

Analyse the demand and supply framework for foreign exchange and explain how fundamental factors — inflation differentials, interest rate differentials, income levels, government intervention, and market expectations — drive exchange rate movements.

2

Explain and apply the Law of One Price and Purchasing Power Parity in both its absolute and relative forms, and compute expected future exchange rates using relative PPP with given inflation differential data.

3

Solve numerical problems on PPP — including calculating the implied PPP exchange rate, determining whether a currency is overvalued or undervalued, and forecasting future spot rates using expected inflation differentials.

4

Evaluate the empirical validity of PPP using evidence from the Big Mac Index and academic studies, and explain why PPP holds poorly in the short run but improves over long horizons — distinguishing between short-term volatility driven by capital flows and long-term trends driven by relative prices.

4-Hour Session Planner

This session balances theoretical exposition with substantial numerical problem-solving. Faculty should reserve at least 45 minutes for guided and independent numerical work.

Icebreaker

Opening Hook: "The iPhone Price Puzzle — Why Does the Same Phone Cost Different Amounts in Different Countries?"

15 min

Students compare iPhone 16 prices across 8 countries. The variation — up to 40% — cannot be explained by exchange rates alone. This introduces the Law of One Price and the central puzzle PPP attempts to solve: why don't identical goods sell for identical prices when expressed in a common currency?

Lecture

Section 1: Demand & Supply in the FX Market — The Flow Approach

25 min

Who demands rupees? Who supplies rupees? The flow approach: current account transactions (exports, imports), capital account transactions (FDI, FPI, ECBs), and official reserve transactions as sources of currency demand and supply. How shifts in these flows move the exchange rate.

Lecture

Section 2: Fundamental Factors Affecting Exchange Rates

35 min

Seven fundamental factors: (1) Inflation differentials, (2) Interest rate differentials, (3) Income levels and growth, (4) Government controls and intervention, (5) Market expectations and speculation, (6) Political stability and economic performance, (7) Terms of trade and productivity. Each factor analysed for direction and magnitude of effect on the exchange rate.

Cross-Question

CQ Box 1: Multi-Factor Analysis

10 min

Students analyse a scenario where multiple factors push the rupee in opposite directions — rising Indian inflation (depreciation pressure) vs. rising RBI interest rates (appreciation pressure) vs. FPI outflows (depreciation pressure). Which force dominates, and under what conditions?

Lecture

Section 3: Purchasing Power Parity — Absolute & Relative PPP

40 min

The Law of One Price as the micro-foundation. Absolute PPP: the exchange rate should equal the ratio of price levels. Relative PPP: the change in the exchange rate should equal the inflation differential. Derivation of the relative PPP formula: e₁ = e₀ × (1+Ih)/(1+If). The PPP as a theory of the long-run equilibrium exchange rate.

Lecture + Activity

Section 4: The Big Mac Index & Empirical Evidence on PPP

20 min

The Economist's Big Mac Index as an accessible PPP application. Interpreting overvaluation/undervaluation. Why PPP fails in the short run (price stickiness, capital flows, non-traded goods, trade barriers) but performs better over long horizons. The "PPP puzzle" — why deviations from PPP are large and persistent.

Formative Assessment

In-Lecture Quiz (4 Questions)

10 min

Quiz covering demand/supply framework, inflation-interest-exchange rate relationships, and PPP concepts.

Numerical Problem-Solving

Section 5: Numerical Problems on Purchasing Power Parity

35 min

Guided problem-solving: 6–8 numerical problems covering absolute PPP (calculating implied rate, identifying over/undervaluation), relative PPP (forecasting future spot rates), and cross-rate PPP applications. Problems solved on the board with student participation.

Cross-Question

CQ Box 2: PPP in Practice

10 min

"If PPP holds in the long run, why has the Indian rupee consistently depreciated against the USD over 30 years? Calculate the PPP-implied rate and compare to the actual rate." Students apply relative PPP to long-run India-US data.

Scenario Debate

Scenario Debate: Four Firms, Four Exchange Rate Forecasts

25 min

Four persona cards presenting firms that need to forecast exchange rates using the factors and PPP framework. Groups analyse and present.

Wrap-Up & Assessment

Key Concepts Glossary & Exit Ticket

15 min

Faculty reviews 12 key terms. Students complete Exit Ticket with a numerical PPP problem. Preview of Week 7 (Interest Rate Parity & Fisher Effect).

Opening Hook • 15 Minutes

"An Apple iPhone 16 (base model) costs USD 799 in the United States. The same phone costs INR 79,900 in India. At the current exchange rate of INR 83/USD, the Indian price is equivalent to USD 963 — roughly 20% more than the US price. Meanwhile, in Japan, the same phone costs JPY 124,800 — which at JPY 150/USD is USD 832, just 4% more. Why? If the Law of One Price says identical goods should sell for the same price everywhere when expressed in a common currency, why doesn't it hold? And what does the violation tell us about exchange rates?"

Instructions: In pairs, brainstorm for 4 minutes: List all the reasons you can think of why an iPhone costs more in India than in the US — even after converting at the market exchange rate. Think about taxes, transportation, market power, regulation, and anything else that might create a price difference. Then, connect your list to exchange rates: if the rupee were to depreciate to 100/USD, would the INR price of an iPhone in India change? Would the dollar-equivalent price change?

Faculty: Capture reasons on the board: import duties (India imposes ~20% on imported electronics), GST (18%), logistics and distribution costs in a vast country, Apple's pricing power (less competitive pressure in India's premium smartphone segment), regulatory compliance costs (BIS certification, local data-storage requirements). Then introduce the session's central question: "The Law of One Price says exchange rates should adjust to equalise prices. In reality, prices differ — persistently. Today we study why, and what this means for the financial manager who must forecast exchange rates."
Facilitator Note — Making PPP Concrete

Surfacing the Distinction Between Tradable and Non-Tradable Components

The iPhone is an excellent PPP teaching tool because it embodies both tradable (the hardware — manufactured in China, shipped globally, priced in USD) and non-tradable components (distribution, retail markup, local taxes, after-sales service — all priced in local currency). The iPhone's price difference across countries is largely explained by non-tradable components and trade barriers (tariffs), not by a failure of PPP for the tradable hardware itself. This distinction — between the Law of One Price for homogeneous traded goods and its failure for differentiated goods with local non-tradable components — is the analytical bridge to the afternoon's lecture on PPP's empirical performance.

Key numbers to have ready: iPhone 16 base model prices (approximate, as of late 2024/early 2025). US: USD 799. India: INR 79,900 (USD 963 at 83). Japan: JPY 124,800 (USD 832 at 150). Brazil: BRL 7,799 (USD 1,560 at 5.0 — the most expensive major market). Turkey: TRY 64,999 (USD 1,970 at 33 — nearly 2.5× the US price). These extreme variations — driven by Brazil's and Turkey's punitive import duties and local taxes on electronics — make the point vividly: exchange rates alone do not equalise prices.

1. The Demand and Supply Framework for Foreign Exchange

1.1 Who Demands Rupees? Who Supplies Rupees?

The foreign exchange market, like any market, is driven by the interaction of demand and supply. The exchange rate — INR 83 per USD — is the price at which the demand for rupees equals the supply of rupees. Every international transaction recorded in India's BOP generates either a demand for rupees (someone needs INR to pay for Indian goods, services, or assets) or a supply of rupees (someone has INR and wants to convert them into foreign currency to pay for foreign goods, services, or assets).

Source of Demand for INR (Credits in BOP)Source of Supply of INR (Debits in BOP)
Indian exports of goods: A US buyer pays for Indian textiles — they sell USD and buy INR. Demand for INR rises.Indian imports of goods: An Indian buyer pays for crude oil — they sell INR and buy USD. Supply of INR rises.
Indian exports of services: A US client pays Infosys for IT services — demand for INR.Indian imports of services: An Indian tourist in Switzerland — supply of INR.
Inward remittances: An NRI in Dubai sends money to family in Kerala — demand for INR.Outward investment income: India pays dividends to foreign FPI investors — supply of INR.
Inward FDI: A Japanese automaker builds a plant in Gujarat — demand for INR (they must convert JPY to INR to pay for land, labour, and materials).Outward FDI: Tata Motors acquires a plant in the UK — supply of INR (they must convert INR to GBP to pay for the acquisition).
Inward FPI: A US pension fund buys Indian equities on the BSE — demand for INR.Outward FPI: The same pension fund sells Indian equities — supply of INR.
External Commercial Borrowings: An Indian firm raises a USD loan — it sells the USD for INR. Demand for INR.ECB repayment: The same firm repays the loan — it sells INR to buy USD. Supply of INR.
RBI intervention (buying USD): The RBI buys USD to prevent rupee appreciation — it supplies INR (increases INR in the market) in exchange for USD.RBI intervention (selling USD): The RBI sells USD to prevent rupee depreciation — it demands INR (absorbs INR from the market) in exchange for USD.

The Exchange Rate as the Equilibrating Price: When the total demand for INR (from all sources — exports, remittances, FDI, FPI, ECBs) exceeds the total supply of INR (from imports, investment income outflows, outward FDI, FPI outflows, ECB repayments), the rupee appreciates. When supply exceeds demand, the rupee depreciates. The exchange rate moves continuously to balance the two sides. For the financial manager, the art of exchange rate forecasting is the art of anticipating which of these forces will strengthen or weaken — and by how much.

From Flows to Stocks — The Asset-Market Approach: The flow approach (analysing the current-account and capital-account transactions that generate currency demand and supply in a given period) is intuitive and useful for understanding short-term movements. However, modern exchange rate theory emphasises the asset-market approach: exchange rates are determined not just by current flows but by the stock decisions of investors managing multi-currency portfolios. When investors collectively decide to increase the share of Indian assets in their portfolios, they demand INR to buy those assets — the flow can be enormous relative to trade flows. This asset-market perspective explains why exchange rates are far more volatile than trade flows alone would predict and why interest rate differentials and expectations play such a dominant role in short-term exchange rate movements.

2. Fundamental Factors Affecting Exchange Rates

Exchange rates are driven by a complex interaction of economic, financial, and political forces. While no single factor explains exchange rate movements at all times, the following seven factors are the most systematically important. The financial manager must understand each — not as a mechanical predictor, but as a source of pressure whose strength varies with economic conditions and market sentiment.

2.1 Inflation Differentials

Mechanism: Higher domestic inflation relative to foreign inflation erodes the purchasing power of the domestic currency. Domestic goods become more expensive relative to foreign goods, reducing export demand and increasing import demand. The trade balance deteriorates, increasing the supply of the domestic currency (to pay for imports) relative to demand (from exports). The currency depreciates.

Direction: Higher domestic inflation → depreciation pressure. Lower domestic inflation → appreciation pressure.

Indian Context: India has consistently had higher inflation than the United States — averaging approximately 6–7% versus 2–3% over the past three decades. This persistent inflation differential is the single most important structural driver of the rupee's long-term depreciation against the USD — from INR 17.5/USD in 1991 to INR 83/USD in 2024. Relative PPP, which we study in Section 3, formalises this relationship: the expected depreciation should equal the expected inflation differential.

2.2 Interest Rate Differentials

Mechanism: Higher domestic interest rates (relative to foreign rates) attract capital inflows — foreign investors buy domestic bonds to capture the higher yield, creating demand for the domestic currency. This is the carry trade logic: investors borrow in low-interest-rate currencies (JPY, CHF) and invest in high-interest-rate currencies (INR, BRL, TRY), profiting from the interest differential — as long as the high-interest-rate currency does not depreciate by more than the interest gain.

Direction: Higher domestic interest rates → capital inflows → appreciation pressure (in the short run). Lower domestic rates → capital outflows → depreciation pressure.

Important Nuance: The interest-rate effect on the exchange rate is time-dependent. In the short run, higher rates attract capital and appreciate the currency (the "liquidity effect"). But higher rates also slow the economy and reduce inflation — which, over the medium term, leads to depreciation (if rates are cut in response to the slowdown). The financial manager must distinguish between the short-term (carry-trade) effect and the medium-term (real-economy) effect of interest rate changes. This distinction is formalised in the International Fisher Effect (Week 7).

2.3 Income Levels and Economic Growth

Mechanism: Faster domestic income growth increases demand for imports (both consumer goods — as households become wealthier — and capital goods — as firms invest to expand capacity). Import demand rises with income (the marginal propensity to import). If export growth does not keep pace, the trade balance deteriorates, and the currency faces depreciation pressure. Conversely, if income growth is driven by export expansion (as in East Asian economies), the net effect on the trade balance — and therefore on the exchange rate — depends on the relative strength of the export and import effects.

Direction: Faster domestic growth relative to trading partners → typically depreciation pressure (via import demand). But the effect is ambiguous if growth is export-led.

2.4 Government Controls and Central Bank Intervention

Mechanism: Governments and central banks can influence the exchange rate through: (a) direct intervention in the FX market (buying/selling foreign currency), (b) capital controls (restricting cross-border capital flows), (c) trade policy (tariffs, quotas affecting import demand), (d) exchange rate policy (devaluation/revaluation of a peg), and (e) moral suasion (encouraging or pressuring banks and firms to transact in ways that support the currency).

Indian Context: The RBI's managed float — and its asymmetric intervention pattern (buying USD to prevent appreciation, selling USD to smooth depreciation) — directly shapes the rupee's trajectory. The financial manager must assess not just the economic fundamentals that would determine the exchange rate in a free market, but the RBI's reaction function — how the central bank is likely to respond to exchange rate movements given its inflation target, growth objectives, and reserve adequacy.

2.5 Market Expectations and Speculation

Mechanism: Exchange rates are forward-looking asset prices — they reflect not just current conditions but market participants' expectations of future conditions. If the market expects the RBI to raise interest rates, the rupee may appreciate before the rate hike occurs — as speculators buy INR in anticipation. If the market expects a widening CAD, the rupee may depreciate before the trade data is released — as speculators short the INR. Expectations can be self-fulfilling: if enough market participants believe the rupee will depreciate, their collective selling of INR causes exactly the depreciation they anticipated.

Direction: Expectations of future appreciation → current appreciation. Expectations of future depreciation → current depreciation. The exchange rate is, in this sense, an "asset price" — it jumps in response to news that changes expectations, even before the underlying economic variable has changed.

2.6 Political Stability and Economic Performance

Mechanism: Political instability — elections with uncertain outcomes, policy unpredictability, social unrest, geopolitical tensions — increases the risk premium investors demand to hold the country's assets. The higher perceived risk drives capital outflows (or deters inflows), depreciating the currency. Conversely, credible economic reforms, political stability, and improved governance attract capital and strengthen the currency. The mechanism operates through the capital account (portfolio and FDI flows) and, in the extreme, through capital flight (residents themselves converting domestic currency into foreign assets to protect wealth).

2.7 Terms of Trade and Productivity

Mechanism — Terms of Trade: The terms of trade are the ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices. An improvement in the terms of trade (export prices rising relative to import prices) increases the country's export revenue relative to its import spending, improving the trade balance and strengthening the currency. A deterioration has the opposite effect. For India, a rise in global crude oil prices is a terms-of-trade deterioration (India imports oil and its price rises relative to India's export prices), which depreciates the rupee.

Mechanism — Productivity: Faster productivity growth in the tradable sector (the Balassa-Samuelson effect) raises wages in the tradable sector, which spill over into higher wages in the non-tradable sector. Since non-tradable productivity grows more slowly, non-tradable prices rise — this is domestic inflation that is not caused by monetary expansion but by productivity differentials between sectors. The result is a real exchange rate appreciation — the Balassa-Samuelson effect explains why currencies of fast-growing economies tend to appreciate in real terms over time, even as they may depreciate in nominal terms due to inflation.

Cross-Question 1 • Multi-Factor Analysis (10 Minutes)

Consider the following scenario for India:

(a) CPI inflation has risen to 7.2%, well above the RBI's 4% target, driven by food and fuel prices. The US inflation rate is 3.1%.
(b) The RBI has responded by raising the repo rate from 6.50% to 7.25%, and has signalled that further hikes are possible if inflation does not moderate. The US Federal Reserve has paused its rate-hiking cycle at 5.25–5.50%.
(c) FPI outflows from Indian equity and debt markets have totalled USD 12 billion over the past two months, driven by global risk-off sentiment and concerns about India's widening CAD.
(d) India's GDP growth has slowed from 7.2% to 6.0%, partly due to the RBI's rate hikes dampening domestic demand.
(e) Crude oil prices have risen 20% in the past quarter, worsening India's import bill and CAD.

Analyse the direction and relative strength of the exchange rate pressure from each of these five factors. Some push the rupee toward depreciation; some toward appreciation; some have ambiguous effects. Which factors do you think dominate in the short run (next 3 months)? In the medium run (next 12–18 months)? Justify your answer.

Hint: Distinguish between factors that operate through the trade/current-account channel (inflation, growth, oil prices — slower to affect the rate) and factors that operate through the capital-account channel (interest rates, FPI flows — faster). In the short run, capital-flow factors tend to dominate. In the medium run, trade/current-account factors gain influence.

Facilitator Note — Debriefing CQ Box 1

Guiding the Multi-Factor Analysis

Factor-by-factor analysis:

  • (a) Inflation differential: India 7.2% vs. US 3.1% → depreciation pressure (via PPP logic — higher Indian inflation erodes the rupee's purchasing power). This is a medium-term force.
  • (b) Interest rate differential: RBI 7.25% vs. Fed 5.25–5.50% → a positive carry of ~175–200 bps in favour of INR. This creates appreciation pressure through the carry trade — investors can borrow USD at ~5.5% and invest in INR at ~7.25%. This is a short-term force that can dominate the inflation effect in the near term.
  • (c) FPI outflows: USD 12 billion of outflows → depreciation pressure. This is an immediate, powerful force that can overwhelm the carry-trade benefit if outflows are large enough.
  • (d) GDP slowdown: Ambiguous. Slower growth reduces import demand (reducing INR supply → appreciation pressure) but also deters FDI and FPI (reducing INR demand → depreciation pressure). The net effect depends on the relative sensitivity of imports vs. capital flows to the growth slowdown.
  • (e) Oil price rise: Depreciation pressure — larger import bill, wider CAD. This operates through the current account with a lag but is a powerful medium-term force.

Synthesis: In the short run (3 months), the FPI outflows (c) and the RBI rate hike (b) are likely to dominate — they affect the exchange rate immediately through capital flows. The net direction depends on their relative magnitude: if the rate hike attracts more inflows than the FPI outflows, the rupee could appreciate; if outflows dominate, the rupee depreciates. In the medium run (12–18 months), the inflation differential (a) and oil price (e) are likely to dominate — these structural forces point toward depreciation. The key teaching point is that different factors operate on different time horizons, and the "exchange rate" at any moment reflects the market's weighted average of all these forces.

3. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) Theory

Purchasing Power Parity is the oldest and most intuitively appealing theory of exchange rate determination. Its core claim is deceptively simple: in the long run, exchange rates should adjust so that a given basket of goods costs the same in any two countries when measured in a common currency. If it costs INR 60,000 to buy a representative consumption basket in India, and USD 700 to buy the same basket in the US, the "correct" (PPP-implied) exchange rate is INR 60,000 / USD 700 = INR 85.71/USD. If the actual market rate is INR 83/USD, the rupee is "overvalued" relative to PPP — it buys more dollars (and therefore more US goods) than its domestic purchasing power would suggest.

3.1 The Law of One Price (LOOP)

The Law of One Price is the microeconomic foundation of PPP. It states that, in the absence of transportation costs, trade barriers, and other frictions, identical goods should sell for the same price in different markets when expressed in a common currency. If LOOP holds for Good X:

Law of One Price: PX,India = EINR/USD × PX,US
Where: PX,India = the INR price of Good X in India; PX,US = the USD price of Good X in the US; E = the INR/USD exchange rate (direct quote).
Rearranged: ELOOP = PX,India / PX,US — the exchange rate implied by LOOP for Good X.

If LOOP is violated — if the Good X is cheaper in the US after converting at the market exchange rate — arbitrageurs will buy the good in the US, ship it to India, and sell it at the higher INR price, converting the INR proceeds back into USD at a profit. The arbitrage process increases demand for the good in the US (raising its USD price), increases supply in India (lowering its INR price), and generates demand for INR/USD conversion (moving the exchange rate). All three forces push toward LOOP restoration.

In practice, LOOP holds well for homogeneous commodities with low transportation costs — gold, crude oil, wheat, copper — where arbitrage is physically feasible. It holds poorly for differentiated goods (iPhones, automobiles, branded apparel), services that cannot be arbitraged (haircuts, restaurant meals, real estate), and goods subject to high trade barriers or taxes (alcohol, tobacco, electronics in high-tariff countries like India and Brazil).

3.2 Absolute Purchasing Power Parity

Absolute PPP extends the Law of One Price from a single good to a representative basket of all goods and services. It states:

Absolute PPP: EPPP = PIndia / PUS
Where: PIndia = the price level in India (in INR); PUS = the price level in the US (in USD).
The exchange rate should equal the ratio of the two countries' price levels.

Numerical Example 1 — Absolute PPP: Suppose a representative consumption basket costs INR 150,000 in India and USD 1,800 in the US. The absolute PPP-implied exchange rate is INR 150,000 / USD 1,800 = INR 83.33/USD. If the actual market exchange rate is INR 86/USD, the rupee is undervalued relative to PPP — it takes more rupees to buy the same goods in India than the PPP rate would suggest. Specifically: the INR is undervalued by (86 − 83.33) / 83.33 = 3.2%.

Absolute PPP in its pure form requires strong assumptions: (a) there are no transportation costs, tariffs, or other barriers to trade; (b) all goods are traded internationally; (c) the consumption baskets in the two countries are identical (same goods in the same proportions); and (d) there is no market power (prices equal marginal costs everywhere). These assumptions are never fully satisfied in reality, which is why absolute PPP rarely holds at any given point in time. However, the absolute PPP-implied rate provides a useful benchmark — a reference point against which to assess whether a currency appears overvalued or undervalued.

3.3 Relative Purchasing Power Parity

Relative PPP is the empirically more useful form of the theory. It does not claim that the level of the exchange rate equals the ratio of price levels — only that the change in the exchange rate over time should equal the difference in inflation rates between the two countries. Relative PPP is a theory of exchange rate dynamics, not of exchange rate levels.

Relative PPP (Exact Formula):
e1 = e0 × (1 + Ih) / (1 + If)

Relative PPP (Approximation):
%Δe ≈ Ih − If
The percentage change in the exchange rate should approximately equal the inflation differential.

Where: e0 = current spot rate (direct quote: INR per USD); e1 = expected future spot rate; Ih = domestic (India) expected inflation rate; If = foreign (US) expected inflation rate.

The Logic: If India's inflation rate is 6% and the US inflation rate is 2%, Indian goods become 4% more expensive relative to US goods each year. To maintain purchasing power parity — to keep the real exchange rate constant — the rupee must depreciate by approximately 4% per year against the dollar. The rupee depreciation offsets the higher Indian inflation, keeping Indian goods competitively priced in global markets.

Numerical Example 2 — Relative PPP: The current spot rate is INR 83/USD. India's expected inflation rate is 6.5%. The US expected inflation rate is 2.5%. What is the expected spot rate one year from now under relative PPP?

Exact formula: e1 = 83 × (1.065) / (1.025) = 83 × 1.03902 = INR 86.24/USD.

Approximation: %Δe ≈ 6.5% − 2.5% = 4.0%. e1 ≈ 83 × 1.04 = INR 86.32/USD. (The approximation error is small — 8 paise, or 0.1% — and is acceptable for quick estimates.)

Interpretation: Relative PPP predicts that the rupee will depreciate from 83 to approximately 86.24 per USD over the next year, solely due to the inflation differential. This does not mean the rupee will definitely be 86.24 in one year — actual exchange rates are driven by many forces beyond relative inflation (interest rates, capital flows, speculation, intervention, shocks). Rather, 86.24 is the PPP-implied equilibrium rate — the rate that would keep the real exchange rate constant. If the actual rate diverges significantly from the PPP-implied rate, the currency is becoming overvalued or undervalued in real terms, which may signal future correction.

Numerical Example 3 — Forecasting the INR/USD Rate Over 5 Years: Spot rate = INR 83/USD. Expected annual inflation: India 6%, US 2.5%. What is the PPP-implied exchange rate in 5 years?

Using the exact formula over multiple periods: e5 = 83 × (1.06)5 / (1.025)5 = 83 × 1.33823 / 1.13141 = 83 × 1.1828 = INR 98.17/USD.

This illustrates a critical feature of relative PPP: inflation differentials compound over time. A seemingly modest 3.5% annual inflation differential, compounded over 5 years, implies a cumulative depreciation of approximately 18.3%. Over 10 years, it would imply ~41% depreciation. Over 30 years (India post-1991), it implies an enormous cumulative depreciation.

4. The Big Mac Index and Empirical Evidence on PPP

4.1 The Economist's Big Mac Index

In 1986, The Economist magazine created the Big Mac Index — an accessible, informal test of PPP using the price of McDonald's Big Mac hamburger across countries. The Big Mac is a remarkably effective PPP proxy because it is a relatively standardised product (same ingredients, similar production process) produced locally in each country using local inputs, labour, and real estate — making its price sensitive to local cost conditions rather than just international arbitrage.

How to Read the Big Mac Index:

The Big Mac Index almost always finds that currencies of developing countries are undervalued against the USD relative to PPP — because non-traded inputs (labour, real estate, utilities) are cheaper in developing countries, making Big Macs (and most goods and services) cheaper there even after currency conversion. This is the Balassa-Samuelson effect in action: low productivity in developing-country non-tradable sectors keeps wages and prices low, producing a systematic PPP deviation that narrows (but does not fully close) as countries develop.

4.2 Empirical Evidence on PPP

The academic literature on PPP is vast and yields a nuanced set of findings:

  1. PPP fails dramatically in the short run: Monthly and quarterly exchange rate changes bear essentially no relationship to contemporaneous inflation differentials. Exchange rates are far more volatile than relative prices — the standard deviation of monthly USD/DEM (now EUR/USD) exchange rate changes has historically been 8–10 times larger than the standard deviation of relative inflation rates. Capital flows, interest rate changes, and shifting expectations dominate price-level effects in the short run.
  2. PPP performs better over long horizons: Over 5-year, 10-year, and 20-year horizons, the correlation between cumulative exchange rate changes and cumulative inflation differentials strengthens substantially. For high-inflation countries (where inflation is the dominant macroeconomic shock), PPP holds reasonably well even over 1–2 year horizons. For low-inflation developed countries (where other shocks — productivity, preferences, capital flows — are more important relative to inflation), PPP holds only over very long horizons (decades).
  3. Mean reversion is slow: When exchange rates deviate from PPP, the deviation tends to narrow over time — but very slowly. Studies estimate a "half-life" of PPP deviations of 3–5 years for developed-country exchange rates. This means that if the rupee is 20% undervalued relative to PPP, it will take roughly 3–5 years for half of that undervaluation (10%) to be corrected — and potentially a decade or more for full correction. PPP is a long-run attractor, not a short-run predictor.
  4. PPP holds better under fixed rates than floating rates: During the Bretton Woods era, when exchange rates were fixed, relative inflation rates were strongly correlated with future devaluations. Under floating rates, the relationship is much weaker — because nominal exchange rates can move for reasons unrelated to relative prices, and the two can decouple for extended periods.
  5. PPP holds better for traded goods than for broad price indices: When PPP is tested using producer price indices (PPI, which heavily weight traded goods) rather than consumer price indices (CPI, which heavily weight non-traded services), the evidence is stronger. This confirms that the failure of short-run PPP is largely due to non-traded goods and services — the very items that LOOP cannot arbitrage.
Summary — What PPP Can and Cannot Do for the Financial Manager:

What PPP CAN do: Provide a long-run anchor for exchange rate forecasts — if you need to forecast the INR/USD rate 5–10 years out for a long-term project or investment, relative PPP (applied to expected long-run average inflation differentials) is the best available tool. Identify whether a currency is substantially overvalued or undervalued in real terms — flagging the risk of a future correction.

What PPP CANNOT do: Predict short-term (months to 1–2 years) exchange rate movements — interest rates, capital flows, and market sentiment dominate in this horizon. Explain the exact timing or magnitude of exchange rate corrections — PPP tells you a correction is likely, not when or by how much. Replace the need for hedging — even if PPP "predicts" the rupee will depreciate 3.5% over the next year, the actual depreciation could be 0% or 15%, and the firm with USD-denominated costs cannot afford to be wrong by 15%.
Cross-Question 2 • PPP in Practice (10 Minutes)

In 1994, the USD/INR exchange rate was approximately INR 31.4/USD. In 2024, it was approximately INR 83/USD — a cumulative depreciation of the rupee of approximately 165% over 30 years. Over the same period, India's average annual CPI inflation was approximately 7.0%, while US average annual CPI inflation was approximately 2.5%.

(a) Using the annual average inflation rates, calculate the PPP-implied exchange rate for 2024 (starting from INR 31.4 in 1994). Use the exact formula: e2024 = e1994 × (1 + IIN)30 / (1 + IUS)30. You may use the approximation: IIN − IUS ≈ 4.5% per year, compounded for 30 years.

(b) Compare your PPP-implied rate to the actual rate (INR 83/USD). Is the rupee overvalued, undervalued, or approximately at its PPP-implied level relative to 1994? What does this suggest about the long-run validity of relative PPP as applied to the INR/USD exchange rate?

(c) The Big Mac Index in 2024 suggests the INR is dramatically undervalued (implied PPP rate: ~INR 39/USD). Why does a 30-year relative PPP calculation from 1994 give a very different result from the 2024 Big Mac Index? What are these two PPP measures actually capturing?

For (b), think about what relative PPP predicts: if the annual inflation differential is 4.5%, the rupee should depreciate by about 4.5% per year. Over 30 years, that's a lot of depreciation — but is it close to what actually happened? For (c), consider the difference between a dynamic PPP calculation (tracking changes from a base year) and a static PPP calculation (comparing current price levels).

Facilitator Note — Solution

Guided Solution to CQ Box 2

(a) PPP-implied 2024 rate:

Using the approximation: annual depreciation = 7.0% − 2.5% = 4.5%. After 30 years, cumulative: (1.045)30 ≈ 3.745. PPP-implied rate = 31.4 × 3.745 ≈ INR 117.6/USD.

Using the exact formula: 31.4 × (1.07)30 / (1.025)30 = 31.4 × 7.6123 / 2.0976 = 31.4 × 3.629 = INR 114.0/USD.

The approximated and exact rates differ because compounding the ratio of growth factors is not the same as compounding the difference. The exact figure (114) is lower because the denominator (US price level, compounding at 2.5%) grows more than the approximation captures.

(b) Comparison: Actual rate: 83. PPP-implied rate: ~114. The actual rupee is stronger (more appreciated) than PPP would predict — 83 vs. 114 means the rupee has depreciated less than the inflation differential would imply. The rupee is, in this sense, overvalued relative to its 1994 starting point and the inflation differential. This is a surprising result for many students who assume the rupee's long depreciation means it must be "weak" — in fact, the real exchange rate (nominal rate adjusted for inflation differentials) has appreciated over 30 years, reflecting India's rising productivity, growing capital inflows, and the Balassa-Samuelson effect.

(c) Reconciling the Big Mac Index with 30-Year Relative PPP: The Big Mac Index is a static absolute PPP measure — it compares current price levels without reference to history. It says: at current prices, the exchange rate that equalises Big Mac prices is ~INR 39/USD; the actual rate of 83 means the rupee is overvalued. The 30-year relative PPP calculation is dynamic — it tracks changes from a base year. It says: starting from 31.4 in 1994, inflation differentials would have pushed the rate to ~114; the actual rate of 83 means the rupee has appreciated in real terms. Both can be true simultaneously — and they are. The Big Mac Index captures the Balassa-Samuelson effect (non-tradables are cheaper in India, making the Big Mac cheap and the implied PPP rate low). The 30-year relative PPP captures the trend — the rupee has depreciated less than inflation differentials alone predict, because India's productivity growth and capital inflows have provided offsetting appreciation pressure.

In-Lecture Formative Quiz

4 Questions • 10 Minutes

Select the best answer for each question, then click Check Answers.

1. According to the flow approach, which of the following transactions creates demand for the Indian rupee in the foreign exchange market?

Correct! When a US FPI buys Indian shares, they must first convert USD into INR — creating demand for rupees. Options (a), (c), and (d) all involve converting INR into foreign currency, which creates supply of rupees, not demand.
The correct answer is (b). FPI inflows create demand for INR — the investor must buy rupees to purchase Indian assets. Options (a), (c), and (d) all create INR supply — the Indian entity must sell rupees to obtain the foreign currency needed for the transaction.

2. If India's inflation rate is 7% and the US inflation rate is 2%, relative PPP predicts that the Indian rupee should:

Correct! Relative PPP predicts that the percentage change in the exchange rate equals approximately the inflation differential: %Δe ≈ 7% − 2% = 5% depreciation. Higher domestic inflation reduces the purchasing power of the rupee, and the nominal exchange rate depreciates to keep the real exchange rate constant.
The correct answer is (d). Higher inflation erodes purchasing power, and the currency depreciates to compensate. Option (a) reverses the direction — inflation causes depreciation, not appreciation. Option (b) is incorrect — PPP specifically links exchange rate changes to inflation differentials. Option (c) is arithmetically and conceptually wrong.

3. The current INR/USD spot rate is 82. India's expected inflation is 5%. The US expected inflation is 3%. Using the exact relative PPP formula, what is the PPP-implied exchange rate one year from now (rounded to two decimal places)?

Correct! e₁ = e₀ × (1 + Iₕ) / (1 + I_f) = 82 × 1.05 / 1.03 = 82 × 1.01942 = INR 83.59/USD. The rupee depreciates by approximately 1.94% because Indian inflation is 2 percentage points higher than US inflation.
The correct answer is (a). The formula is e₁ = e₀ × (1 + Iₕ) / (1 + I_f). Higher domestic inflation (numerator) means depreciation (a higher direct quote). Option (b) inverts the ratio. Option (c) adds the inflation rates — that's wrong. Option (d) subtracts — that's the approximation (close, but the exact formula is more precise).

4. Which of the following best explains why Purchasing Power Parity fails to hold in the short run?

Correct! Short-run exchange rates are dominated by capital flows (which respond to interest rates and expectations), not by goods-market arbitrage (which responds to relative prices and is slow due to price stickiness and non-traded goods). PPP is a long-run theory because the forces it describes — price-level adjustment and goods-market arbitrage — operate slowly.
The correct answer is (c). PPP fails in the short run because capital flows and expectations dominate exchange rate movements, while goods prices adjust slowly. Option (a) overstates central bank power. Option (b) is false — measurement error is not the primary reason. Option (d) is incorrect — the use of USD in trade does not invalidate the logic of PPP.

5. Numerical Problems on Purchasing Power Parity

Solve the following problems. For each, show the formula, substitute the data, compute the result, and provide a one-sentence interpretation. Work in pairs for problems 1–4; problems 5–8 are for independent practice.

Useful Formulae:
Absolute PPP: EPPP = Pdomestic / Pforeign
Relative PPP (exact): e1 = e0 × (1 + Ih) / (1 + If)
Relative PPP (approximation): %Δe ≈ Ih − If
Over/Undervaluation: (Actual Rate − PPP Rate) / PPP Rate × 100
Positive = domestic currency overvalued (direct quote is higher than PPP-implied); Negative = undervalued.

Problem Set — Guided Practice (Problems 1–4)

Problem 1 — Absolute PPP (Over/Undervaluation): A standardised consumption basket costs INR 200,000 in India and USD 2,500 in the United States. The current market exchange rate is INR 83/USD. (a) Calculate the absolute PPP-implied exchange rate. (b) Determine whether the rupee is overvalued or undervalued relative to PPP, and by what percentage.

Solution: (a) EPPP = 200,000 / 2,500 = INR 80/USD. (b) (83 − 80) / 80 × 100 = +3.75%. The rupee is overvalued by 3.75% relative to PPP — the actual rate (83) is higher (weaker) than the PPP rate (80), meaning it takes more rupees to buy the same goods than PPP would predict.

Problem 2 — Relative PPP (Exact Formula): The current GBP/INR exchange rate is INR 105/GBP. The UK's expected inflation rate is 3.0%. India's expected inflation rate is 5.5%. Calculate the PPP-implied GBP/INR rate one year from now using the exact formula.

Solution: e1 = 105 × (1.055) / (1.03) = 105 × 1.02427 = INR 107.55/GBP. The rupee is expected to depreciate against the pound by approximately 2.43% over the year, reflecting the 2.5 percentage point inflation differential.

Problem 3 — Relative PPP (Approximation vs. Exact): The current EUR/INR rate is INR 90/EUR. India's expected inflation = 6%. Eurozone expected inflation = 2%. (a) Calculate the PPP-implied rate one year from now using the approximation. (b) Calculate it using the exact formula. (c) Comment on the size of the approximation error.

Solution: (a) Approximation: %Δe ≈ 6% − 2% = 4%. e1 ≈ 90 × 1.04 = INR 93.60/EUR. (b) Exact: e1 = 90 × (1.06)/(1.02) = 90 × 1.03922 = INR 93.53/EUR. (c) The approximation error is INR 0.07 (0.07%) — negligible for practical forecasting purposes when inflation differentials are modest.

Problem 4 — Multi-Year Forecast: The current USD/INR rate is INR 83/USD. India's expected average annual inflation over the next 10 years is 5.5%. The US expected average annual inflation is 2.0%. Using relative PPP (exact formula), calculate the expected USD/INR rate in 10 years.

Solution: e10 = 83 × (1.055)10 / (1.02)10 = 83 × (1.7081) / (1.2190) = 83 × 1.4013 = INR 116.31/USD. The rupee depreciates by approximately 40% over 10 years, solely due to the cumulative inflation differential.

Problem Set — Independent Practice (Problems 5–8)

Problem 5: An Indian financial manager observes that a particular machine tool costs INR 85,00,000 in India and USD 100,000 in the US. The current spot rate is INR 83/USD. Is it cheaper to buy the machine tool in India or the US? Calculate the PPP-implied rate and the percentage over/undervaluation.

Problem 6: The JPY/INR spot rate is INR 0.56/JPY (note: direct quote from India's perspective — INR per JPY). Japan's expected inflation is 1.5%. India's expected inflation is 6.0%. Using the exact relative PPP formula, calculate the expected JPY/INR rate in 2 years.

Problem 7: A Big Mac costs INR 230 in India and USD 5.80 in the US. The market exchange rate is INR 83/USD. (a) Calculate the Big Mac PPP-implied rate. (b) What is the percentage over/undervaluation of the rupee? (c) Explain why the Big Mac PPP-implied rate differs so dramatically from the actual rate — what does the Big Mac price capture that the broad CPI does not?

Problem 8 (Challenge): The INR/USD rate was INR 45/USD in 2010. Over the 14 years to 2024, India's cumulative inflation was approximately 130%, and US cumulative inflation was approximately 40%. Using relative PPP, what should the INR/USD rate be in 2024? The actual rate is INR 83/USD. Is the rupee overvalued or undervalued relative to PPP? Suggest two reasons why the actual rate might differ from the PPP-implied rate.

6. Scenario Debate: Exchange Rate Forecasting for Indian Firms

Four persona cards. Each group applies the demand/supply framework and PPP to forecast exchange rates and recommend financial strategies.

SK
Siddharth Kapoor
Treasury Head, Veda Pharma Ltd. (Generics — Hyderabad)

Veda Pharma exports generic drugs to the US (80% of revenue, USD-denominated) and Europe (15%, EUR-denominated). It is evaluating a USD 50 million acquisition of a US generic drug manufacturer to secure distribution channels and gain access to the lucrative US generic market directly. The acquisition would be financed through a mix of Veda's INR cash reserves (40%) and USD-denominated debt (60%). The deal will close in 9 months. The CFO has asked Siddharth to: (a) forecast the USD/INR rate at the closing date, (b) recommend whether to hedge the INR cash component (which will be converted to USD at closing), and (c) assess the long-term exposure — once acquired, the US subsidiary will generate USD revenue with USD costs (no currency mismatch at the subsidiary level), but Veda must eventually repatriate dividends to India in INR.

Using the demand/supply framework (what are the key forces affecting INR/USD over the next 9 months?) and PPP (what does the inflation differential forecast as the long-run trend?), construct a reasoned exchange rate forecast for Siddharth. Should Veda hedge the INR-to-USD conversion for the acquisition closing? What is the optimal hedging ratio — 100%, 50%, or 0% — and why?

MA
Megha Agarwal
CFO, Nalanda EdTech Ltd. (Online Education — Noida)

Nalanda EdTech generates 60% of its revenue from Indian students (INR) and 40% from international students — primarily from the Middle East (AED/USD-pegged), Africa (USD and local currencies — NGN, KES, ZAR), and South Asia (LKR, BDT, NPR). The company has raised USD 200 million from US venture capital funds — equity, not debt — so the currency mismatch is not on the balance sheet (no USD debt) but on the valuation: US investors value Nalanda in USD terms. The INR has depreciated from 73 to 83 against the USD over the past two years. This has been painful for the US investors: even though Nalanda's INR revenue grew 40%, its USD-equivalent revenue grew only 23% (40% INR growth minus ~17% depreciation). Megha must present a currency strategy to the board.

Nalanda has no USD costs — so hedging its USD revenue from international students would not be a "natural" hedge. What alternatives does Megha have? Consider: (a) diversifying the cost base by hiring in USD-cost locations (US, UK, Philippines), (b) pricing international courses in USD and bearing the conversion risk centrally, (c) using financial hedges to lock in the USD/INR rate for projected international revenue. How does the PPP-implied long-term depreciation trajectory of the rupee shape the board's expectations about future USD-denominated valuation?

VJ
Vikram Joshi
Head of International Treasury, Aditya Birla Capital (Financial Services — Mumbai)

Aditya Birla Capital manages a diversified portfolio of INR 50,000 crore across Indian equities, bonds, and alternative assets. The firm is considering allocating 10–15% of its portfolio (INR 5,000–7,500 crore) to international assets — US equities (S&P 500 ETFs), global bonds, and emerging-market debt — to diversify risk and capture higher returns in global markets. However, the firm's liabilities (policyholder funds, investor commitments) are entirely INR-denominated. Investing abroad creates a currency mismatch: the assets will be in USD (or other foreign currencies), and the returns — when converted back to INR for reporting and liability management — will be affected by INR/USD movements.

Vikram must forecast the INR/USD rate over a 5–7 year investment horizon — the typical holding period for the international portfolio allocation. Using PPP (both absolute and relative), construct a long-term INR/USD forecast. If PPP predicts the rupee will depreciate by ~3.5% annually against the USD, does this favour or hinder the case for investing abroad? Should Aditya Birla Capital hedge the currency exposure on the international portfolio, or accept it as part of the diversification benefit? How does the volatility of the rupee — which short-run PPP cannot predict — affect the hedging decision?

NS
Nisha Sharma
Finance Director, KumarAgro Exports (Rice & Spices — Ludhiana, Punjab)

KumarAgro is a leading exporter of basmati rice and spices to the Middle East, Europe, and North America. The firm's revenue is multi-currency: 40% USD (Middle East, US), 30% EUR (Europe), 20% GBP (UK), and 10% others. Its costs are overwhelmingly INR (procurement from farmers, milling, packaging, logistics within India). The firm operates on thin margins (net margin ~5–7%), and a 5% adverse currency movement can wipe out the annual profit. The firm hedges using forward contracts, but the board has questioned the cost: "Every year we pay the forward premium to the bank. Sometimes the rupee depreciates more than the forward rate — and we would have been better off unhedged. Why hedge at all?"

Using PPP and the factors framework, explain to KumarAgro's board why hedging is not a bet on the direction of the rupee but a risk-management tool that protects the firm's thin margins from unpredictable volatility. Specifically: (a) compare the forward rate's expected depreciation (which embeds the interest rate differential — Week 7) with the PPP-implied depreciation (which embeds the inflation differential); (b) explain why PPP cannot tell the board whether the rupee will depreciate more or less than the forward rate over any specific 3-month hedging window; (c) recommend a hedging policy — what percentage of projected export receivables should be hedged, and over what horizon?

Facilitator Note — Scenario Debate

Activity Structure

Setup (2 min): Four groups, one persona each. 10 minutes analysis. 3-minute presentations (12 min). Synthesis (5 min).

Prompt cards:

  • Veda Pharma (P1): "Siddharth faces a specific, dated transaction — the acquisition closes in 9 months. PPP is a long-run theory; it has almost no predictive power over a 9-month window. What can inform a 9-month forecast? Interest rate differentials (Week 7), RBI intervention patterns, crude oil prices, and FPI flow trends. For a dated, one-time transaction of USD 30 million (the INR cash component), what is the argument for hedging near 100%?"
  • Nalanda EdTech (P2): "Nalanda's currency problem is an accounting translation problem, not a cash-flow problem. The US investors mark their investment to market in USD, so INR depreciation shows up as a markdown. But Nalanda has no USD debt — it doesn't need USD to service obligations. Should operational decisions (hiring in USD-cost locations, pricing in USD) be driven by investor reporting preferences?"
  • Aditya Birla Capital (P3): "This is the classic international portfolio diversification problem. PPP predicts ~3.5% annual rupee depreciation — which mechanically adds 3.5% per year to the INR return on unhedged USD assets. But this is not a free lunch — the 3.5% 'depreciation gain' is compensation for India's higher inflation, which erodes the INR purchasing power of the returns. The real return — after adjusting for both US inflation and INR depreciation — is what matters. Does hedging the currency exposure of the international portfolio increase or decrease the diversification benefit?"
  • KumarAgro (P4): "The 'hedging destroyed value' argument — 'we would have been better off unhedged' — is a classic example of outcome bias. The fact that an unhedged position would have been profitable ex-post does not mean that the ex-ante decision to hedge was wrong. The board is confusing strategy with outcome. The farmer who buys crop insurance and the monsoon is normal has not 'wasted' the premium — they bought protection against a risk that did not materialise."

7. Fishbowl Debate: Can Exchange Rates Be Forecast?

Debate Proposition

"This House believes that exchange rate forecasting — using economic fundamentals such as PPP, interest rate differentials, and BOP analysis — adds value to corporate financial management, and that firms should invest in developing in-house forecasting capability rather than relying solely on market-implied rates (forwards) for their hedging and strategic decisions."

Position A: Forecasting Adds Value

  • PPP provides a long-run anchor that the forward rate does not: Forward rates embed the interest rate differential, not the inflation differential. For long-horizon decisions (FDI, 10-year project finance), the PPP-implied rate is a better indicator of sustainable exchange rate levels than the forward rate (which extends reliably only 1–2 years for most emerging-market currencies).
  • Forecasting is not about point predictions — it is about scenario analysis: The financial manager does not need to predict the exact INR/USD rate in 12 months. What matters is assessing the distribution of possible outcomes — what is the range, what are the drivers, what scenarios could produce extreme outcomes, and what is the firm's exposure under each scenario? Fundamental analysis — PPP, BOP, interest rates, political risk — provides the structure for this scenario analysis.
  • Forward rates are not pure market forecasts — they embed risk premia and are distorted by capital controls: In emerging markets with partial capital mobility (like India), the forward rate is not a pure, unbiased forecast of the future spot rate. It embeds a risk premium (compensation for bearing INR depreciation risk), is affected by RBI intervention in the forward market, and is constrained by onshore-offshore arbitrage limits. Relying solely on the forward rate is relying on a price that reflects regulatory distortions as much as fundamentals.

Position B: Forecasting Is a Fool's Errand

  • The empirical evidence is devastating: The Meese-Rogoff (1983) finding — that a simple random walk (no-change forecast) outperforms structural exchange rate models (PPP, monetary models, portfolio balance models) at horizons up to 12–18 months — has survived nearly 40 years of academic assault. If PhD economists with the world's best data and models cannot beat a random walk, what hope does a corporate treasury team have?
  • The forward rate is the market's best estimate, incorporating all available information: If the corporate treasurer thinks the rupee will depreciate 8% over the next year but the 12-month forward implies only 4%, the treasurer is effectively claiming to know more than the combined wisdom of all market participants — banks, hedge funds, central banks, corporates — trading trillions of dollars daily. The forward rate is not always right, but it is the best available estimate. Betting against it is speculation, not financial management.
  • Corporate FX forecasting creates a dangerous illusion of control: If the treasurer's model says the rupee will depreciate, the firm may under-hedge its USD payables — and if the model is wrong (as models frequently are), the firm suffers real cash losses. The discipline of systematic hedging — hedging a consistent proportion of exposures using forwards regardless of one's view on the direction of the exchange rate — protects the firm from the treasurer's forecasting errors.
Facilitator Note

Moderation and Synthesis

Synthesis close: "This debate does not have a winner — it has a synthesis. The correct answer is: forecast, but do not bet on your forecasts. Use fundamental analysis (PPP, BOP, interest rates) to construct scenarios and to understand the forces shaping the exchange rate over your firm's planning horizon. Use forwards and options to hedge the exposures that would threaten your firm's solvency or strategic objectives if rates move against you. Treat forecasting as a tool for understanding the environment and managing risk — not as a tool for generating speculative profit from currency positions."

8. Key Concepts & Terminology — Week 6

Law of One Price (LOOP)

The proposition that, absent transport costs, trade barriers, and other frictions, identical goods should sell for the same price in different markets when expressed in a common currency. LOOP is the micro-foundation of PPP. If violated, arbitrageurs buy in the cheaper market and sell in the dearer, forcing prices toward convergence.

Absolute Purchasing Power Parity

The theory that the exchange rate between two currencies should equal the ratio of the two countries' price levels: E = Ph/Pf. A basket of goods should cost the same in both countries when measured in a common currency. Absolute PPP is a theory of exchange rate levels; it rarely holds at any point in time due to non-traded goods, trade barriers, and market imperfections.

Relative Purchasing Power Parity

The theory that the change in the exchange rate over time should equal the inflation differential: %Δe ≈ Ih − If. Relative PPP is a theory of exchange rate dynamics; it holds better empirically than absolute PPP, particularly over long horizons and for high-inflation countries.

Big Mac Index

An informal PPP indicator published by The Economist since 1986, using the price of a McDonald's Big Mac across countries. Provides an accessible estimate of currency over/undervaluation. Systematically finds developing-country currencies to be undervalued due to the Balassa-Samuelson effect (cheaper non-traded inputs).

Balassa-Samuelson Effect

The tendency for fast-growing economies to experience real exchange rate appreciation. Productivity growth is typically faster in the tradable sector; wages rise there and spill over to the non-tradable sector, raising non-tradable prices and the overall price level. This makes PPP-based calculations (like the Big Mac Index) systematically find developing-country currencies undervalued.

Real Exchange Rate (RER)

The nominal exchange rate adjusted for relative price levels: RER = E × (P*/P). A rise indicates a real depreciation (domestic goods become cheaper relative to foreign goods). A constant RER is what relative PPP predicts when inflation differentials are exactly offset by nominal exchange rate changes.

Flow Approach to Exchange Rates

The analysis of exchange rate movements based on the demand for and supply of currencies arising from BOP transactions — exports and imports (Current Account), FDI and FPI flows (Financial Account), and official reserve transactions. Shifts in these flows change the equilibrium exchange rate.

Asset-Market Approach

The modern view that exchange rates are determined not just by current trade and capital flows but by the stock decisions of investors managing multi-currency portfolios. Explains why exchange rates are far more volatile than trade flows and why expectations, interest rate differentials, and risk appetite play such a large role in short-term movements.

Carry Trade

An investment strategy of borrowing in a low-interest-rate currency and investing in a high-interest-rate currency to profit from the interest differential. Profitable as long as the high-yield currency does not depreciate by more than the interest gain. Central to understanding the short-run relationship between interest rates and exchange rates.

Meesa-Rogoff Puzzle

The seminal finding (Meese & Rogoff, 1983) that a simple random walk (no-change forecast) outperforms structural exchange rate models (PPP, monetary models) at short to medium horizons (up to 12–18 months). This finding has proved remarkably robust, challenging the practical value of exchange rate forecasting for short-term financial management.

PPP Half-Life

The estimated time it takes for half of a deviation from PPP to be corrected. Empirical studies estimate half-lives of 3–5 years for developed-country exchange rates, implying that PPP deviations are persistent and correction is slow. This "PPP puzzle" — why deviations are so large and long-lasting — is a central research question in international finance.

Terms of Trade

The ratio of a country's export prices to its import prices. An improvement (export prices rising relative to import prices) strengthens the currency by increasing export revenue relative to import cost. A deterioration (e.g., rising crude oil prices for India, a net oil importer) weakens the currency.

Exit Ticket — Week 6

Complete each section. Estimated time: 7–10 minutes.

1. One Thing I Learned

Describe the most important concept or insight from this session — a factor, a PPP variant, or an empirical finding.

2. One Point of Confusion

Identify one concept that remains unclear. If you struggle with the difference between absolute and relative PPP, or with why PPP fails empirically in the short run, articulate what specifically confuses you.

3. PPP Calculation

The current INR/USD rate is 83. India's expected inflation next year is 6%. The US expected inflation is 2.5%. (a) Using the exact relative PPP formula, calculate the PPP-implied rate one year from now. (b) If the actual rate in one year turns out to be 88, has the rupee depreciated more or less than PPP predicted? What percentage deviation from the PPP-implied rate does this represent?

4. PPP and Your Career

As a future finance professional, you will encounter exchange rate forecasts — from banks, consultants, and in-house teams. Based on this week's content, write 3–4 sentences explaining: (a) what PPP can usefully tell you about long-term exchange rate trends, (b) what PPP cannot tell you about short-term movements, and (c) how you would use — but not over-rely on — PPP in your financial analysis.

9. Session References & Further Reading

Required Reading

Classic Works

Interactive Resources